Is there a Dr in the house to interpret my MRI?

I wish you luck. I had a very similar report. I ended up with 2 sx and 18 months of rehab. At month 10 I asked to have my arm removed at the shoulder.....it was AWFUL.

If you are working on your dominant hand, start wiping off side and thank me later.....or go 100% carnivore.

Mine was done at a major orthopedic hospital and it still took a version 2.0.

Good news is that I am better now, bad news is all that time being left handed didn't do my left shoulder any good....getting old sucks.
 
CRJR45 said:
What am I missing ?

Full-thickness complete tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with musculotendinous retraction. The teres minor is within normal limits. Partial tears of the subscapularis.The long biceps tendon is within the bicipital groove but the tendon appears to be enlarged with some increased signal consistent with tendinosis, possible partial tear.Evaluation of the glenohumeral joint demonstrates tear of the anterior labrum. There is moderate joint effusion communicating with fluid in subacromial/subdeltoid bursa.Hypertrophic degenerative change of the acromioclavicular joint with some impression on the underlying supraspinatus. Type II acromion.Evaluation of marrow signal within the visualized bones demonstrates subchondral cystic change/marrow edema at the previous supraspinatus/supraspinatus insertions.There is some element of atrophy of the muscles of the RIGHT shoulder/rotator cuff.
Click to expand...
He is referencing your images not the report, interpretations of images may vary between different observers. Is the buck 3 years old or 5?
 
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I held off commenting on this thread, but I want to give you something to think about. The radiologist who read my MRI made a similar finding - full thickness complete tear of the supraspinatus. I got scheduled with a shoulder/elbow orthopedic surgeon who reviewed the MRI with me and had no problem with that interpretation. When I came out of surgery, the surgeon told me (I was too anesthesia drunk to recall any of this) and my wife (who recalled all of it) that there was no tear in the supraspinatus. He claimed I had a bone spur in my shoulder that was impinging on my biceps tendon, which was "frayed" and needed work. He detached and then reattached it to my humerus, cleaned up my bone spurs and I was done. The moral of the story is that no matter how advanced our imaging technology is, there can still be misinterpretation/clinical error. The good news is that I'm 18 months post-surgery and doing better than I ever expected. Follow your PT's direction to the T and I wish you well in your journey.
 
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yfarm said:
He is referencing your images not the report, interpretations of images may vary between different observers. Is the buck 3 years old or 5?
Click to expand...
5MilesBack said:
That's just the radiologists interpretation of your MRI. We haven't seen your MRI to do our interpretation. :ROFLMAO:
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Ok , I knew I was missing something . Thats all I got right now , from the My Chart app , I will get a hard copy , I'll send you one if you would really like to see it personally ?
 
Wrench said:
I wish you luck. I had a very similar report. I ended up with 2 sx and 18 months of rehab. At month 10 I asked to have my arm removed at the shoulder.....it was AWFUL.

If you are working on your dominant hand, start wiping off side and thank me later.....or go 100% carnivore.

Mine was done at a major orthopedic hospital and it still took a version 2.0.

Good news is that I am better now, bad news is all that time being left handed didn't do my left shoulder any good....getting old sucks.
Click to expand...
My left arm is already overworked , reaching over the steering wheel to shift , ETC, . I feel it getting sore .
 
CRJR45 said:
What am I missing ?

Full-thickness complete tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with musculotendinous retraction. The teres minor is within normal limits. Partial tears of the subscapularis.The long biceps tendon is within the bicipital groove but the tendon appears to be enlarged with some increased signal consistent with tendinosis, possible partial tear.Evaluation of the glenohumeral joint demonstrates tear of the anterior labrum. There is moderate joint effusion communicating with fluid in subacromial/subdeltoid bursa.Hypertrophic degenerative change of the acromioclavicular joint with some impression on the underlying supraspinatus. Type II acromion.Evaluation of marrow signal within the visualized bones demonstrates subchondral cystic change/marrow edema at the previous supraspinatus/supraspinatus insertions.There is some element of atrophy of the muscles of the RIGHT shoulder/rotator cuff.
Click to expand...
You asked people to interpret your MRI, but tben provided an interpretation of your MRI. Your asking folks to interpret the interpretation.
 
dieselchessy said:
You asked people to interpret your MRI, but tben provided an interpretation of your MRI. Your asking folks to interpret the interpretation.
Click to expand...
Yeah , I should've worded it a bit different , but now I got you interpreting why the interpreters can't interpret what needed no interpretation !
Thank you 😎
 
My buddy at work fell off the end of some scaffolding and caught himself on the way down, tearing up some things. Rather than listen to the recovery recommendations, he over did a number of things, which worked until it didn’t and some things were partially torn off. Now he can’t lift his arm very far and the surgeon took another look at it and said that’s just tough luck at this point - he should have listened. Had he listened to common sense it wouldn’t have happened in the first place. Lol
 
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